I was browsing the alternative Hypothesis and came across this
>thealternativehypothesis.org
Why did the European IQ not regress to the mean? I'm sorry but I know very little about how IQ works, I know that it's largely heritable and that you can't simply increase say Black or Arab IQ by simply taking the top 10% of their population and making them out breed(out-breed?) the rest as the IQ would regress to the mean. Now this is where I'm quite confused, why did this not happen to whites? Since the same happened there as well, i.e. the top dogs out breeding the bottom people. Would this only work if a lower IQ group got the top 10% to out breed the bottom for a very long time over multiple generations or is there something else going on here? I know this is a very complex subject and I'm sorry for being so obtuse, but I don't really know where else to ask this. Another thing that came to mind was, if this is the case and Darlingern whites are mainly a product of the elites of a 1000 years ago, then what was the behavior of bottom barrel whites like back then? Comparable to Darlingern Nigs?
Another doubt I had was, when Ryan says "top 35.4%" is he referring to the top 35.4% of the 1st generation that was taken as the starting point for the research or the top 35.4% of each generation? If it's the latter then we would all be born to a very small section of people yes? Another question I had was that, is this why the Germans are so intelligent? Considering the Thirty years war reduced the male population by half in Germany and the overall population by 40%?
>en.wikipedia.org
And the Black death having had similar effect on the whole of Europe itself?
>en.wikipedia.org
I suppose in similar vein the Chinese with their history of constant war and mass death could have had a similar effect on the population and hence their IQs are higher? I know they cheat a lot but there's no arguing that they're better than Nigs and Arabs.
>en.wikipedia.org
Many of them are in China.
So what gives here? Is the only way to increase IQ of a group to kill of the bottom? And if this is the case then why does regression to the mean not occur here?
Once again, my apologies, I'm not very knowledgeable on the subject