Did capitalists invent monogamy and heterosexuality?

Sexuality itself is a bourgeois invention imposed to create new markets for sex-related commodities. This was achieved by the extermination of baby-delivering stork populations during the colonial period, as well as the suppression of humans' natural budding process via processed, genetically engineered food.

So they lived in cruck houses with their farm animals but not their parents, because their parents were already dead. Essentially, they could not have extended families, because war, famine, pestilence, and death made it impossible to do so. Damn, life in late-medieval England sucked.

By the way here's the original video in case y'all didn't see it
twitter.com/QueerDSA/status/1072304479284928512?s=20

No, it's been a constant for the majority of societies since at least Assyria & Babylonia and probably even older but that's when we find the first law texts that mention it (incidentally also the oldest law texts in existence). Divorce was only allowed if the woman was barren and no child came out of it.

It's mostly been more and less clan-centric depending on the time and place but it's been around in one form or another for at least as long as we've had agrarian societies, only really circumvented by small unstable transient tribes and polygamy from 1%er nobility that could circumvent it when they were at their strongest relative to the rest of society.

People now increasingly pretend it's a dated system in order to spread their individual atomization fetish but Stalin for all his other flaws rightly saw through that bourgeoise sham for what it was, an eroding influence on any society that adopted it as strong families remain the backbone of societally useful men & women. (tons of statistics speak for this, notably the example of single motherhood leading to a massive increase in the likelyhood of anti-social behaviour)

And there's no point on even touching heterosexuality as it's a biological instinct to breed and requires a personal deviation or a largely libertine-pederast indoctrination to desire otherwise (not counting nihilistic anti-natalism, it's own set of inane bourgeoise drivel), hence why even in a time where it's encouraged more than ever we don't see more than an irrelevant 2% of the population even flirt with the notion.

Talk about deliberately misreading something!

no that was back in the primitive times. you dolt.

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We're here, we're queer, and now your car won't steer

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No, the very same shift in conscience of which all modern political thought, including marxism, is a part of did.

Sodomy became homosexuality as whales became mammals instead of fish.

THIS MEME WAS BROUGHT TO YOU BY KACZINSKY GANG

I bet LARPwel made this

The answer is 'no' to both, and anyone claiming otherwise is provably wrong. Also, that cringy video is from a while ago.

Prove it then.

Is that the cointelpro agent who's dad is an executive at The Carlyle Group?

no

Gibberish, and that article is garbage.
Does it though? He started with the conclusion, nice! Like when teachers in the US assign students an essay titled 'Why is America the best country in the world?'

Some questions: If people were expected to start their own household (their parents having one of their own), why did it matter if the parents were alive or dead? What happened to the plot of land the parents had after they died? If the parents were dead by the time their kids started their own household, why start a household, why not just inherit the parents'?

Oh, let's see if he explains how:
Ah yes, they adopted bourgeois habits before the industrial revolution and capitalism, which make the bourgeoisie and associated habits possible.

Yeah, opportunity and property that happened after the industrial revolution and brought people to cities for work. Why would a family move anywhere if there isn't a place where there's a lot of jobs, just more of the same. He ascribes post-Industrial behaviours to pre-industrial families.

Really really bad article.

The article isn't stirring together the industrial and pre-industrial era, but instead positing that the lengthy preexisting history of nuclear families in certain countries aided the later rise of industrialization there.

No. Religion did. Capitalism merely enshrined religious idpol horseshit.

Death to christcucks and any other religiousfag.

And I'm saying that's stupid because he says those families acquired 'bourgeois habits'. How can you acquire bourgeois habits if the bourgeoisie doesn't exist? Also, how can you acquire patterns of behaviour that rely on industry and capitalism existing?

If he's suggesting that being a family that is "flexible and mobile as it searche[s] for opportunity and property" is bourgeois behaviour then literally the first Humans had bourgeois habits. And that's just a silly claim.

Because "bourgeois" has become a term of characterization/condemnation that has almost nothing to do with either the historic (well-of city dweller) or economic (those whose income does not stem directly from their labour) sense of the word.

To expand a bit on other poster's point, the bourgeois (especially in Britain) weren't "well-off city dwellers", rather a group of "freedmen" encompassing not only merchants and lenders but in majority craftsmen tied into the guild/apprentice/journeyman system, who had formed cities that enjoyed some measure of territorial sovereignty against the feudal system of barons and knights (the "City of London"'s odd legal status to this day provides probably the best known example). Though limited in population and scope compared to the vastness of the peasantry and feudal warrior class by their inherently niche economic function in pre-industrial times, this exception to the normal rules of feudalism would prove its undoing in later times.

Come the Industrial Revolution, its paradigm change provided an opportunity for which they were well suited.

No
No

Right. But how do nuclear families from the countryside fall into that category?

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