This is what I have summed up from wikipedia. How much of it is true? Did the Soviet Union really starve the Ukranians? Did Stalin really want to starve the Ukranian population? I need the facts about this because I know somebody is going to bring it up in a discussion about this and its something I don't know enough about. I'd like to hear your thoughts.
Red pill me on holodomor leftypol
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The thing to note about the Holomemedor is that out of all the communist "mass killings" it's the least important but Zig Forums spins it as "Jews killing whites."
Whats generally considered worse than holodomor? Gulags? The purges?
Big conspiracy that right wingers like to push when it gets pointed out that exactly 6 million died in the holocaust.
Like a small amount of people starving (Stupid,Illiterate prole farmers) is worse than an actual well documented tragedy (like the holocaust) and people should talk about that instead.
Really gets the niggin joggin.
Niggins inherently jog as they have better legs than whites where as whites have better upper bodies.
You might wanna redirect this question to Zig Forums. They are the Stalin apologists, not us. Both Holodomor and the Holocaust happened because both Stalin and Hitler were psychotic autocrats. If both the Soviet Union and Germany were governed by direct democracy of the working class, none of that would've happened.
Hitler and Stalin were both fascists, only disagreeing on economic planning. Some kulaks deserved it, of course, but it's absurd to think that millions of people were kulaks. Stalin was as bourgeois as it comes, merely LARPing as a hero of the proletariat.
Why would the Soviet state deliberately starve rural Ukrainians and not include urban Ukrainians? Why would the Soviet state continue to allow the Ukrainian Soviet Socialist Republic to function? Why wouldn't it close down the Ukrainian-language press and universities? Why would the "genocide" of Ukrainian peasants stop around the same time as collectivization itself was complete, rather than continue on indefinitely until everyone was dead? Why would the Soviet state ten years later call on the Ukrainians to rise up in defense of their motherland against the fascist invaders? Where was the demonization of Ukrainians as subhuman or otherwise worthy of extermination?
In correspondence Dr [Robert] Conquest has stated that it is not his opinion that 'Stalin purposely inflicted the 1933 famine. No. What I argue is that with resulting famine imminent, he could have prevented it but put 'Soviet interest' other than feeding the starving first—thus consciously abetting it.'"
(R.W. Davies & Stephen G. Wheatcroft. The Years of Hunger: Soviet Agriculture, 1931-1933. New York: Palgrave Macmillan. 2004. p. 441.)
If the most famous anti-communist historian of the USSR says the famine wasn't intentional, that's a pretty big deal. When one can also note that Orlando Figes, J. Arch Getty, Stephen Kotkin, Moshe Lewin, Sheila Fitzpatrick, Terry Martin, Michael Ellman and Hiroaki Kuromiya (among other well-known historians of the USSR) argue the famine wasn't intentional, it's safe to say it wasn't intentional.
Literal nazi propaganda to justify invasion.
There was a famine, but it was obviously not some deliberate attempt by the communist party to kill farmers.
Then why does most of the world still recognize it as a genocide according to wikipedia?
Because wikipedia is owned and controlled by liberals.