I think people are confused on what "scandal" and "being scandalized" actually means.
> In like manner, while going along the spiritual way, a man may be disposed to a spiritual downfall by another's word or deed, in so far, to wit, as one man by his injunction, inducement or example, moves another to sin; and this is scandal properly so called. (II,II Q43 a.1)
> Sometimes therefore it happens that there is active scandal in the one together with passive scandal in the other, as when one commits a sin being induced thereto by another; sometimes there is active without passive scandal, for instance when one, by word or deed, provokes another to sin, and the latter does not consent; and sometimes there is passive without active scandal, as we have already said. (Response to objection 4)
And, just to be sure that passive scandal is the same as "being scandalized",
> As already said (Article 1, Reply to Objection 4), scandal is of two kinds, passive scandal in the person scandalized, and active scandal in the person who gives scandal, and so occasions a spiritual downfall. (Article 2)
As to the "mortal sin" part:
> Consequently passive scandal may sometimes be a venial sin, when it consists in a stumbling and nothing more; for instance, when a person is disturbed by a movement of venial sin occasioned by another's inordinate word or deed: while sometimes it is a mortal sin, when the stumbling results in a downfall, for instance, when a person goes so far as to commit a mortal sin through another's inordinate word or deed. (Article 4)
It seems clear that one scandalized when he sins in reaction to another's sins, and not because he merely dissapproves of it (which, in this case, seems absolutely legitimate). So if OP doesn't actually converts to islam or apostatize in reaction to JPII, he should be fine.
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