I am the sort of christian that strongly believe male homosexualism is a Sin, and I heavily distrust pro-LBGT sources.
still, one thing I found is that the bible has zero mentions to lesbianism or female bisexualism, with one possible exception, that is Romans 1:26, that I also often see interpreted to mean anal sex or oral sex being sinful.
So… can someone explain to me what Romans 1:26 is really about?
The letter of the law kills, but the spirit of the law saves.
Male homosexuality is sinful for reasons that would also make female homosexuality sinful. Hence they're both sinful even if nothing is explicitly said about the latter.
But Romans 1:26 explicitly mentions lesbianism as sinful so I don't know what your point is.
Kek
Both are equally sinful, though I heard that back in the olden times, male homosexuality was a bigger crime than female homosexuality. Also
What are you implying OP, you’re not a lesbian are you?
it's about homosex being categorically sinful whether it's men or women doing it. one mention is really all that's necessary. just because our generation is obsessed with dumb pervy crap doesn't mean holy writ is at fault for not devoting more pages to that obvious disgusting evil behavior
It says men with men, women with women. This really doesn't get any more direct about what it means here.
You're probably seeing people interpreting from some corrupt modern version rather than the Authorized version. And the motive is clear, they want to accomodate modern philosophy about sodomy being normal so they start trying to redefine everything to suit that. It's an attack on as many fronts as possible, all working in favor of sodomites. Hence "sodomite" is regularly removed from places like 1 Kings 15:12 and Deuteronomy 23:17 and regularly inserted by the same people into 1 Cor. 6:9 to "normalize" it. We'll be seeing it more and more in the latter times.
But before the 1960's, before the propoganda, all Bible-believers already knew that it was a crime worthy of being removed from society and that these people are recruiters and they are without a single exception after your children, that's how they propogate. Romans 1:24-2:2 also clearly shows this, note how it says these people are full of murder, deceit, haters of God and so on. It's saying that about every sodomite. They of a reprobate mind. That's what Romans 1:26 is really about.
Also interesting about that verse in particular is the fact it says they do that with is against nature. This is the only time anything is qualified as such. Because unless God gives you up to that, no person ever naturally have the desire to consume fecal matter like the sodomites do. It's not even a temptation. And 1 Corinthians 10:13, a great proof text for this, confirms that none of the saved Corinthians ever had this lust that is against nature and "not common to man." Nor did our Lord according to Hebrews 4:15. All points to the fact that sodomites are uniquely separate and reprobate, that it's no accident God gave them up to it.
Also 2 Peter 2:9 (right after talking about Sodom and Gomorrah) states clearly how "The Lord knoweth how to deliver the godly out of temptations." Again, God protecting the non-reprobates from temptations not common to man and that which is "against nature," as Romans 1:26 says. That which we often used to call "the crime against nature" back when people still had an awareness of Scripture.
Back in Bible times women didn't just do their own thing. They didn't even live on their own unless they were a widow. They either lived under their father's roof and his rules, or their husband's roof and his rules. So being a lesbian wouldn't even be something that would come up. The man of the house would know what they were up to, they didn't have the opportunity to go lezzing it up. Ergo, no specific law. So you have to just use common sense I guess. What's an incorrect use of sex (same sex relations) for men is also an incorrect use of sex for women.
This.
That's because it doesn't exist, good sir. It does not serve God to declare sins things that are not possible.
Actually, this guy is right, OP
< Διὰ τοῦτο παρέδωκεν αὐτοὺς ὁ Θεὸς εἰς πάθη ἀτιμίας. αἵ τε γὰρ θήλειαι αὐτῶν, μετήλλαξαν τὴν φυσικὴν χρῆσιν, εἰς τὴν παρὰ φύσιν
< because of this gave up them God to passions of dishonor both indeed females of them changed the natural use into that contrary to nature.
< Even their women exchanged natural sexual relations for unnatural ones.
WHAT VERSION OF THE BIBLE ARE YOU READING?!?!
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