Is Jesus the KJV?

Does this mean the King James Version of the Bible is God? If so I will gladly bow down in worship of the KJV Bible.

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These sayings (sayings is another word for words) are faithful and true. The angel is clearly talking about literal words in this case. Let’s see what this book says about Jesus three chapters earlier
Wow, it really makes you think

Wow so the Bible is God? I will bow down in worship then. Praise be to our great God! :)

No, Jesus is the word, not a collection of papers bound together. You would be committing idolatry praying to a book, especially one made by man.

Jesus was the word that became flesh, was with God, while also being him. This in reality is clear proposal of what would later being in trinitarian theology.

The Bible says that Jesus is the WORD of God which is also what the Bible is. The KJV Bible must then be Jesus, it shares in his essence according to the Bible itself! Maybe you should pick it up and read it.

Why are Andersonites so retarded?

Jesus was the word in that what he taught was directly of god, and by god, not that he was literally gods word, it's poetic!

The bible nomatter how true, and divinely inspired it is, is a document, compiled, and written by people, while Jesus's word was literally gods, straight from the horses mouth, think about it.

So, there's two words in the Greek, translated as "word" in English. The first, which came from your verse, is Logos. Logos refers to Christ, and it is the reason, or underlying principle of the universe. From it, we get the word logic (which should show how ridiculous it is that some believe faith and logic/reason/science are incompatible).

The second is rhema, as in the "thing said." For instance, Paul says "faith comes from hearing, moreover hearing the word of God [Christ]" [brackets because conflicting scriptures on that minor point]. The Greek word hear is "rhematos," basically, faith comes from hearing the -sayings- of Christ. This is different that the Logos himself, the principle underlying our universe that is transcendent. It's just the words that the Logos spoke.

Logos means Christ, Rhema means things that were said. Both are translated as "Word." If, when you say the bible is the "word of God" you mean it is the Rhema of God - true, if you mean it is the Logos, you are mistaken.

It's especially important to check which "word" was used in the Greek if you intend to quote a verse to see whether it refers to Christ or His sayings.

This the Bible is meant to stand in for the Word of our Lord but it is not our Lord worshiping the Bible and not Our Lord is idolatry and is a one way ticket to hell.

Jesus is the Word!! The Bible is God!! The Bible is Jesus!!

Wow! And I thought this thread was posted by some jokers… I'm watching this video and I can't believe this is actually happening. These people are not anything like Christians, they are pagans, even worst than pagans.

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This is why real Christianity is dead. The Greek word used was “Logos” not “word.” If proddies had any knowledge of Greek philosophy they would know why that’s important.

I know, right, I made a whole post about it but everyone ignores it.

Pure idolatry, but let’s entertain it. Why KJV specifically, then?

Get behind me Satan.

It's not literally caput, but you have to be delusional to think even 1% of the plebs have a firm grasp of it in this age.


Nehemiah 7:39
Οἱ ἱερεῖς υἱοὶ Ἰωδαὲ εἰς οἶκον Ἰησοῦ, ἐνακόσιοι ἑβδομηκοντατρεῖς.

הַֽכֹּהֲנִ֑ים בְּנֵ֤י יְדַֽעְיָה֙ לְבֵ֣ית יֵשׁ֔וּעַ תְּשַׁ֥ע מֵאֹ֖ות שִׁבְעִ֥ים וּשְׁלֹשָֽׁה׃ ס

The priests: the children of Jedaiah, of the house of Jeshua, nine hundred seventy and three.


1 John 5:10
He that believeth on the Son of God hath the witness in himself: he that believeth not God hath made him a liar; because he believeth not the record that God gave of his Son.

No, the Bible is a physical book containing words written down, not actual words themselves which are not physical but are abstract. Jesus Christ is the word of God manifest in the flesh.

Then why does John 12:48 use the "word" in a different sense than what you just described in this post?

John 12:48
He that rejecteth me, and receiveth not my words [rhemata], hath one that judgeth him: the word [logos] that I have spoken, the same shall judge him in the last day.

So apparently from John 12:48, Jesus has also spoken logos.

And correctly so. Logos would refer to the abstract concept, an abstract object which can be expressed in speech or writing, and at least in the case of God's word in other ways as well. In fact in John 17:17 we see God's word is no different than the truth itself as well.

And no surprise then that Jesus claims himself to be the way, the truth and the life in John 14:6, because he is the word of God, which is truth, and which I just quoted.

Like I said, John 12:48 he spoke the word/logos.

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Protestant theology is literally kindergarten level. "Jesus can't be the word that would be silly! Don't talk to me about what "Logos" means in Greek the KJV is the definitive bible and it's in English! Checkmate!"

Why do people fetichize the KJV like it's so different than the others, have you even checked other editions to compare? Some are exactly the same, word for word. Some have omitted sentences but no actual change, they're just badly edited but in no way do they change the intents and meanings. Oh and I find the NKJV to be clearer, again no change just a modernization of language so you don't misinterpret something because you're not used to outdated phrasing.

Because they have sub 100 IQ and think that ye olde language makes it more legitimate. Their thought process is that the Bible is old so if the English used is old too then it must be more authentic.