Is English the new Latin? Because the KJV is the most influential Bible ever like the Vulgate was back in its day...

No, because Latin was never the language of the common people, but English is the language of the elite and the common man. It's not a perfect metaphor.

he meant as in grammar, spelling, etc

All those Romans were speaking what … Esperanto?

The English language is a tool, no more or less capable of transmitting divinely inspired ideas than any other language. I enjoy reading the 1873 Cambridge KJV for its simple clarity. (I'm legally blind, so I use the super-giant print version in pic related.) Some people get hung up on the "thees" and "thous," but I find the newer English translations to be overly wordy and almost condescending. There are also far too many English translations these days. It seems every publisher wantonly desires an exclusive translation. For a more modern Bible, I suggest people try the World English Bible, as it's in the public domain.

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Thanks for the schooling (seriously), but what's your opinion about Jove/Jovis then? Since in your example about "sol-wo" it may very well have sounded like a W for Jove too.

Another sidepoint is that there is extraneous history that backs up what I was saying, and it has nothing to do with Latin (not at first). In the Maccabean age, if you recall, the Greeks suppressed the religion and name of God and killed Jews who tried practicing it.

"Then the king wrote to his whole kingdom that all should be one people, and abandon their particular customs. All the Gentiles conformed to the command of the king, and many Israelites delighted in his religion; they sacrificed to idols and profaned the sabbath. [..] Whoever refused to act according to the command of the king was to be put to death." - 1 Mac 1:41-42, 50

By that time, Samaritans (leftovers from the Assyrian mixing and repopulation during the Exile) had made a home in the region too and adopted some of the Jewish customs and religion. Except they worshipped on Mt Gerizim (like the woman at the well with Jesus, if you recall). But during the Maccabean period, they punked out and told the Hellenic leaders about their origins and that they weren't really Jews, and they would gladly change their shrines in honor of Zeus (Jupiter/Jove). 2 Maccabees points this out:

"And not long after this the king sent forth an old man of Athens to compel the Jews to depart from the laws of their fathers, and not to live after the laws of God and also to pollute the sanctuary in Jerusalem, and to call it by the name of Jupiter Olympius, and to call the sanctuary in Gerizim by the name of Jupiter the Protector of strangers, even as they were that lived in the place." 2 Mac 6:1-2

Josephus later makes a point about this:

"When the Samaritans saw the Jews under these sufferings, they no longer confessed that they were of their kindred, nor that the temple on Mount Gerizzim belonged to Almighty God. This was according to their nature, as we have already shown. And they now said that they were a colony of Medes and Persians; and indeed they were a colony of theirs. So they sent ambassadors to Antiochus, and an epistle, whose contents are these: “To king Antiochus the god, Epiphanes, a memorial from the Sidonians, who live at Shechem. Our forefathers, upon certain frequent plagues, and as following a certain ancient superstition, had a custom of observing that day which by the Jews is called the Sabbath. And when they had erected a temple at the mountain called Gerrizzim, though without a name, they offered upon it the proper sacrifices. Now, upon the just treatment of these wicked Jews, those that manage their affairs, supposing that we were of kin to them, and practiced as they do, make us liable to the same accusations, although we be originally Sidonians, as is evident from the public records. We therefore beseech thee, our benefactor and Savior, to give order to Apollonius, the governor of this part of the country, and to Nicanor, the procurator of thy affairs, to give us no disturbance, nor to lay to our charge what the Jews are accused for, since we are aliens from their nation, and from their customs; but let our temple, which at present hath no name at all be named the Temple of Jupiter Hellenius."

Now what's the big deal and my point in all of this? Well, before modern scholarship, the ONLY people who ever pronounced the Tetragrammaton as "Yahweh" have only ever been Samaritans. They still pronounce it this way to this day. Don't you find it a bit suspicious that out of all the people who only pronounced it as Yahweh are also the traitors who cast off God during the Maccabean age and dedicated their religion to Jupiter?

And on a stranger note, when Rome finally burned down Jerusalem and rebuilt it in their image, they renamed it Aelia Capitolina and redicated it to Jupiter Capitolinus. This push to erase the God of Israel in the name of Jove doesn't seem to be a new thing.

Anyways, this is a massive derail. Sorry about that.

It literally was. Why do you think Rome made the switch from Greek?

Let me give a rundown on this. It turns out that all those "scholars" who are only relevant because of the blind trust others give them are using something called "Mishnaic Hebrew" as a foul wellspring from which to corrupt their modern interpretations of (what they like to call) Aramaic as though it were all one language. Actually Mishnaic Hebrew was first developed by the synagogue in the second/third century AD, and used to write the Mishna on targums. The "mishna" would then become the central part of the Talmud, with the term "Babylonian Talmud" now used to refer to the mishna and gemara in total, which was codified together around 499 AD.

So there is this dialect that developed in use by satanic encoders of the Talmud who were wickedly anti-Christian. Later, these same people prop up "scholars" who use the targums (along with "modern Hebrew," another farce invented in the 1800's) and so-called "Jewish cultural context" to come up with all these new translations for authentic Hebrew and Syriac. See the problem here?

Also they trust the modern synagogue which uses a corrupted form of OT which by their belief has no vowel points. This leads to the incorrect reduction of Jehovah to YHWH, and from there they use "mishnaic" and "modern" hebrew to get "yahweh."

Of course we know that a correct translation of the tetragrammaton is Lord, as the New Testament in quoting the Old always uses such a translation. Therefore if you believe in the infallibility of the Greek New Testament, "Lord" is a correct translation. And that's why many Bibles did so until modern times, when people forgot this and started trusting people that really shouldn't be trusted.

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Probably not since much of its technical, scientific, philosophical and religious terminology is still Helleno-Roman.

This is no different in nature than the various shifts the name Jesus has undergone. Furthermore there doesn't appear to be any transliteration of the tetragrammaton as "Iove".

Yeah I see the problem and as usual it's with your incohesive argumentation since your choice translation uses the Masoretic text which uses the tetragrammaton and indicates the usage of the reading as "Lord" with the vowel points. The rendering of Lord by Greeks may very well have arisen from the Jewish prohibition on pronouncing the sacred name. It is also transcribed in many Greek texts.

en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tetragrammaton#Patristic_writings

I suggest all of you stop taking conspiracy theory publications and media as fact.

...

People are pronouncing it as something close to Jove now everywhere when they say "Yahweh" (which doesn't even sound Hebrew). That's my point. If you pronounce the V as a W as old Latin rules might dictate, then "Yahweh" and "Yowe" are similar.

On a sidenote: Weni Wedi Wici

No it uses the original Hebrew Old Testament actually.
So God is forced to obey the Jewish prohibition when he authored the New Testament? lol

Also you don't sound very sure. "May very well have" doesn't fly here.

Are you talking about nomina sacra? Yeah, I already know about that. It still does nothing to change the point I already made above.

The "scholars" who are telling you these things are acting irresponsibly, and that's what I'm here to warn you.

Patristics say the levantines of the first centuries pronounced it as Iao, or something similar.
Jehovah is slamming the vowels for Adonai onto YHWH.

Gnostics also pronounced it similarly. I don't think relying on non-natives is anything to go by though. They're just as clueless as modern people, I think.

Not to say natives clear things up either. This is at the heart of the debate actually. No one trusts the natives either. lol

First off, the Bible itself tells us it could be three syllables, not two. Which would throw out the possibility of things like "Yahweh" or "Iowe" or "Iao". We can deduce this by the names of Hebrews themselves. For example, Jehoshophat or Isaiah - which are Yehoshophat and Yeshayahu in Hebrew. "Yeho" and "Yahu" are common prefix /suffix parts named after the God of Israel. Some would say there is another missing end syllable starting with the "vav" sound (the VH at the end of YHVH), and this is where much of the debate rests.

Modern scholars say that syllable starts with a "W" sound. Jews say it's a V. The reason being that modern scholars are informed by 19th century "Orientalist" studies and bundle Hebrew along with Arabic - and Arabic has "W" sounds. Jews say this is all wrong. That they never spoke "V" like a "W" and Hebrew is different than Arabic. Scholars then say that Jews are just speaking modern Hebrew and got their "V" from Europe. At which point, Jews get disgusted and go about their way. They don't want to hear it. And I don't exactly blame them.

Not to say the Masoretic vowel points are right though. But it could be closer just because it has three syllables and a V sound.

The question is where are you getting the vowel depleted YHWH from? You're getting it from the modern day synagogue that uses such a rendering.

You and everyone who derives from such a source are wrong. That is, there is no authentic manuscript that has missing vowels there. It actually does have the vowels preserved. This is the real issue, the acceptance of corrupted source as baseline fact when it isn't.

Something sounding similar doesn't make it the same. There's a difference between peace and piece, tool and toll, lame and lane etc. If it doesn't sound Hebrew it might have to do with it being non-Hebrew speakers who are the ones pronouncing it.
It was even transliterated as ιαβε.
I understand there being uncertainty over the pronunciation, but one can't be held accountable for saying something that sounds slightly similar.

Waw/vav (ו) is pronounced as [w] in Tiberian, Yemeni, Iraqi, and Samaritan Hebrew. It can be demonstrated to possess a [w] pronunciation, in part through observation of how it's pronounced in other Semitic languages and its attestation and evolution through various scripts. Originally 'waw' in Phoenician which was adopted by the Greeks as upsilon (Y) and by the Romans without the stem as V, and later reincorporated as i graeca ("Greek i).
As mentioned the pronunciation of V in Latin has shifted over the ages.

Vid is a recording of Psalm 119 in the Yemeni tradition.

Interlinear chapter for reference.
biblehub.com/interlinear/psalms/119.htm

When considering how -
the first syllable might be a shewa (ǝ),
the lack of an consonant with an [h] sound in Greek,
how waw can also be used as a vowel as [u] or [o],
how the final consonant (H) is a silent letter,
and lastly the possibility of an unmarked aspiration in some of the vowels,
the attainment of something like the various Greek renditions can start to make sense.

Like I said earlier (under a different ID) , it's more than mere pronunciation. Because the Samaritans actually did abandon the God of Israel and ended up literally rededicating their mountain to Jupiter (Jove). It's mentioned in Maccabees along with Josephus.

This history of replacing the God of Israel with Jove has a long history beyond mere pronunciation. It seems like something Hellenists and Romans alike have attempted multiple times. Like some strange "tick" that demons feel compelled to do for some reason. And it's at the very root of what the abomination of desolation was as well, when Antiochus Epiphanes put a statue of Zeus in the temple of Israel, and Vespasian built an altar of Zeus and sacrificed a pig. Or when Rome eventually conquered Jerusalem completely after Bar Kochba and dedicated the whole city to Jove.

So excuse me if I actually take the condemnations about these things seriously.

And it's funny to me that the only people who kept pronouncing the name as "Yahweh" to this day are the Samaritans. The very people who abandoned God for Jove in the first place. And then to top it off, you use them (or rather, modern scholars use them) as one of the sources for how to pronounce Hebrew. When they're a tainted source and not even Jews.

If it were up to me I'd just render it in bibles as YHWH with Lord or God in parenthesis next to it in accordance with the reading indicated by the Hebrew vowel points.

I wouldn't discount he possibility of slander by the Samaritan's rivals either. Josephus would be under Roman observation himself as well.

Sort of. It's getting replaced with Spanish and Arabic.

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