God is real

"Jew" when it actually means "Judean" for example. Making Rev 2:9 and 3:9 extremely enlightening regarding a certain (((group)))

Regardless of your personal contention, Revelation is understood to be referring to Jews who reject Christ as Messiah anyway, so what's the point?

And which translation is a mistranslation? All of them?

It makes a pretty big difference since it indicates Talmudists are foreign to Judea. Jesus was not a "Jew" as it's now interpreted.

youtu.be/MCphuicYt0M

And again, what is the importance? The Talmudists already fall under the distinction of "Jews who rejected their messiah", and actually covers "Orthodox Jews" as well as the other misc. Jewish sects.

So, "Salvation comes from the Jews" is a mistranslation? Do you argue that Salvation comes from Judeans?

Attached: further_explanation_of_jews_and_jesus_0.png (876x7073, 1.29M)

That entire picture is question-begging, why isn't Judaism, even if it could simply be called Pharisaism alone, Abrahamic? What is an Abrahamic religion, then? What about the Sadducees?

Jesus did not rebuke the Pharisees alone, He rebuked both of the two major sects of the Jews - Pharisees AND Sadducees. The distinction is pointless, and I suspect there is some other agenda lurking around, probably racial idolatry.

This isn't even getting into the ridiculous semantic argument, either the Hebrew and Greek referred to Jews as a whole - the sects of the Pharisees and the Sadducees included - or didn't. This is a new, and completely nonsensical semantic argument. Whom did the Church Fathers criticize? Whom did the Church that Christ established treat as Jews, if the word "Jew" didn't exist until the 18th century?

And AGAIN, what difference does it all make? Jews as we understand it today pertains to ALL Jews who claim to follow the Torah but reject Jesus Christ as the Messiah. What is the agenda here?

Thinking Jesus could have in any shape or form either spiritually and/or physically resembled the abomination that are the Jews as today percieved is absolutely absurd.

Jews as today understood goes even beyond accepting Jesus, they are a racial group whose hands are wet with the blood of the lamb. And if you take the time to watch the video you'd see that even before then they were already radically distinct in culture and race to the original tribes.

Who said this? The Ashkenazi are already known to be a mostly Turkish sub-race that converted en masse centuries ago, why do we need to re-define Scripture to support what genetics does?

Which they can absolve by repenting and turning to Jesus Christ with a whole heart. Your phrasing hints at your intention, are you a racial idolatrist? What if Jesus Christ could be traced to the Ashkenazi, what difference would this make?

If God wanted pure Jews, He would have created them out of stone, just as St. John the Baptist said.

That's a theory ironically made by a jew.
Ashkenazim are levantines that screwed around with euros.

If they were steppefags, they should have looked like tatars, anyhow.

Speaking of, the NT says the jews will convert en-masse to Christianity during the End Times.

If DA REAL jews are gone, and the modern(sidenote: there are a ton of non-ashkenazim jews, btw) jews are a bunch of phonies and posers, who is supposed to miraculously convert, shocking the entire world?

begome greek ordodox then?

Another point for partial preterism.

Satan did that to them user. Don't blaspheme the Lord like that.