New result

Even software can figure this out.
wolframalpha.com/input/?i=e^(-pi/2) = i^i

I don't see why you need a number that no matter what you do to it, it will only return itself.

I'm starting to think OP isn't the actual author because he is just embarrassing himself after being completely proven wrong.

You have bigger and smaller infinities. The size of the set of integers is infinite but smaller than the size of the set of reals.

I'm a total mathlet, but
how did you get rid of the ^i on the right side of the equation?

1 to the power of i is equal to 1.
Stop bumping this retarded thread.

1 to any power is 1.

Just adding in infinities doesn't give you the permission to be reckless. For example: assuming inf - inf = 0
4 - 2 = 2
4(inf) - 2(inf) = 2(inf)
inf - inf = inf
0 = inf
We have reached a contradiction

...

KDE krunner got it correct

Attached: meme.png (434x95, 8.5K)