What went wrong?

The French killed the aristocracy in exchange for the merchants. Not really much of a benefit.

You sound like a retarded slavaboo or a butthurt Slav. I think it's the former, because you don't even know that Bulgaria is a Slavic country.

By your own logic Russia is the big bad evil here, because they annexed (and not annexted) Bessarabia. But you conveniently ignore that. At least read fucking wikipedia articles if you are too lazy to get some history books.
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bosnian_crisis#Exchange_of_letters
Now tell me that the Russian foreign minister of the time had nothing to do with Russia.

Wrong, faggot. You are supposed to put a comma here.
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Black_Hand_(Serbia)#Assassination_of_Archduke_Franz_Ferdinand

Now, you will point at the part where it says it was not aproved by the Serbian Government. But do you know what else wasn't approved by the Serbian Government? The May Coup, which you conviniently ignored.
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/May_Coup_(Serbia)
And again:

Do you honestly believe that Apis and co had no connection to the Russian secret services of the time?

Turning your attention towards decades old conclusions drawn by historians is hardly subjective judgement.
We are on an anonymous message board, not being random would be the real insult, you non-random faggot.
I'm not the one going on about how Slavs are hwite, without knowing that without Scandinavian conquerors there would be no Russia, or being surprized that by the 19th century the average Russian noble spoke French. You again proved your ignorance on even more subjects.
Are you a hairless sissyboy? That would explain why you are so obsessed with that big Russian bear, you lil' fuckboi.
And you also have no idea what trolling means.
You evidently don't know how governments work, because properly working governments do have a collective will, and that collective will is shaped by the people at the very top. Especially if said governments are headed by an autocratic ruler, like an emperor.
We can draw the profile of historically significant people who lived ten centuries ago, or maybe even more.
But they didn't, and even then we have a significant amount of accounts from the time, therefore we can figure out what happened for the most part, and make educated guesses based on the available information. You are on the side of the jews who say the holohoax happened they say it happened, and they just can't prove it because the gnadzees burned all the "documents" that could prove them right.
It's actually closer to 800km, but much more importantly it's part of the explanation as to why they wanted control over the Balkans, other than the land and the people. Again, you don't seem to be familiar with the realpolitik of the time.
Wait, what? The next conflict in the region after 1848-49 was the Crimean war, in which the French and British sided with the Ottomans against Russia. So then, why did Russia fought on the same with the French and the British against the Ottomans in ww1?
Again, you know nothing about the Holy Alliance, or the war of 1848-49.

Don't try to insult others if you don't have anything to insult them with, you hairless slavaboo faggot.

You're all morons ignorant of Russian history.

While the commonly accepted legend states that Rurik and co were Swedish, it's highly disputed due to it being just that, a legend that was only written down hundreds of years later. So I would say, yes you are correct, but that is highly irrelevant, since we are talking about the Romanov dynasty which came much later, not to mention Peter I's reforms which thoroughly westernized the country and radically changed it's culture.

This is correct and not correct at the same time. Allow me to explain. In ye olde times, when the Slavs were a single nation, they called pretty much all foreigners niemtsi, much like the Greeks called all foreigners Barbaroi, which indeed means mutes, and for Germans this name simply stuck around. Slavs did not have a written language, their name comes from the word "slovo" which means "word", in other words, the world was divided into "people that speak" and "mutes". That is as far as that goes.

After Peter I's reforms, French became the fashionable language of the educated, while Russian was the language of the poorfag commoners.

Where are you getting this from?

You cannot imagine how funny your post looks since "rosy" was a Byzantium word for vikings assimilated in Kyiv.

Lel, even French people started to form a single nation no earlier than during Louis XI, not to mention separated Slavs.

Slavs were a collection of tribes that spoke a single language. I would say that does qualify as a single nation my protoukr friend.

Maybe it's highly disputed among some local stormfags making up Obotriti theories. It's well-knows from plenty of sources elites in that time consisted of Slavs mixed with immediately assimilated vikings taking Slavic names and paganism.
It was well after him, he itself was a dutch-germanfag.

There wasn't really a single language. So basically you're claiming Slavs did melt into a single nation centuries before even those lucky French? Well, ok then, it's stupid but I'm too flattered to disagree anyways.

well-known*

Oh shi, i'm sorry for being so blind. Your post is ok, I've just read it first without glasses as a "germanophobes" kek. My apologies.