Theotokos

Lol now you're getting it

All have sinned, so did Jesus Christ sin?

The very relevant answer to the quiz is faith
Romans 4:3 KJV — For what saith the scripture? Abraham believed God, and it was counted unto him for righteousness.

No, and the Bible makes specific exception
2 Corinthians 5:21 KJV — For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.

Ok, but I don't need much evidence, all I need is to prove that Mary loved her son Jesus with all her heart and strength and mind, like a regular mother. Since the Trinity is in unity, merely loving the Son directly is enough to prove complete love of God, and hence sinlessness.

So do you really need me to search the Bible to find all of the clear testimony to the effect that St Mary loved Jesus?

Yeah, my mistake, she clearly wasn't all that great, I should begome IFB

oh, so are we all sinless on account of our faith?

It also made specific exception for Job and Zechariah, and to whom else would this exception extend? If you're willing to cede that St. Paul did not mean all, then you must cede that not all have sinned, and he was speaking rhetorically.

Combine this with the Church's ability to "bind and loose on Heaven and Earth", and the idea of the Immaculate Conception is palatable, no?

Yes
Even though we have sinned, we are seen righteous just like Abraham on account of our faith.

No it doesn't. These statements are not contradictory.
Even if that were your argument, Mary isn't on the list.
No

No, you need to find evidence in the affirmative that she never sinned, not any examples of her being a God-fearer, blessed, loving etc.
Your logic doesn't carry.

This only exists because of an equally unnecessary perspective on what original sin even is.

And by making her pure before Christ, without Christ.. you're making his whole purpose meaningless. If God wanted to do that, he could have done it to everyone instantly as well. But his plan of grace and renewal was through Christ first. And her purity and graces were through Christ:

"As ligh­t­ning illu­mi­na­tes what is hid­den, so also Christ puri­fies what is hid­den in the nature of things. He puri­fied the Vir­gin also and then was born, so as to show that where Christ is, there is mani­fest purity in all its power. He puri­fied the Vir­gin, having pre­pa­red Her by the Holy Spi­rit… having been born, He left Her vir­gin. I do not say that Mary became immor­tal, but that being illu­mi­na­ted by grace, She was not dis­tur­bed by sin­ful desi­res" - St. Ephraim

being righteous is one thing, being sinless is another. all have sinned, right?

They are contradictory, because your proof-texting of them is incorrect. All have not sinned, according to the Bible itself. Elizabeth, Zechariah, Jesus Christ, etc, all have this privilege by your reasoning.

She doesn't need to be. The Church has the ability to bind and loose on Heaven and Earth, and your entire reasoning for saying Mary sinned cannot even be defended by your own reasoning!

You IFB folks are intellectually disingenuous.

She's pure on account of being the Mother of Christ, bub. If Christ is the first-born of all creatures, where would the Mother of all first-born be?

No wonder She never makes an appearance for your church.

Even by purely/historically Protestant terms, Abraham's faith was more than just belief. Read Keirkegaard. I'm not a Protestant, but I kind of like Fear and Trembling, for the nerve-wracking, horrifying narrative of what Abraham went through for his "faith" in his attempt to sacrifice Isaac. That isn't mere belief. That's literally… everything.

No, I'm talking to a brick, I've laid out my theological argument in explicit detail. Please challenge it.
Do you need a scriptural reference to use your head for more than a bookmark? Genuine ask